Paryavarn Sanrakshan Gatividihi's All All India School Paryavaran Competition (AISPC) Supported by Ministry of Education & Ministry of ...
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Paryavarn Sanrakshan Gatividihi’s
All All India School Paryavaran Competition (AISPC)
Supported by
Ministry of Education
&
Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
Question Bank
[Dates for Quiz Competition: From 1st March 2021 to 15th April 2021]
Dear Students
Climate control is the top agenda of Global leaders. It is now well comprehended by all the
Nations that unless emphasis is made and actions are taken to control the climate
degeneration, the world will face irreversible catastrophic damage.
Paryavaran Sanrakshan Gatividhi (PSG), a nationwide organization is determined to
take up the task in the conservation & protection of environment with focus on:
.
Water management
Elimination of Plastic & Non-biodegradable material usage
Discouraging cutting of trees & encouraging & ensuring plantations
Emphasizing on reuse, recycle of natural resources
Creating awareness towards Climate Control initiatives by education & creating
noises at the relevant forums.
Aims & Objectives of the Program:
1. To succeed in creating awareness amongst students to comprehend in depth the
complexity of the looming dangers of uncontrolled climate devastation.2. To acquire practical, put to usage skills, competency & attitude to confront the
environmental challenges & their mitigation.
3. To encourage proactive & enthusiastic participation from the students to create
“Green and safe planet”
Action plan: All India School Paryavaran Competition (AISPC)
To ensure maximum participation of our beloved students-The future of the nation, we are
organizing an All India School Paryavaran Competition (AISPC) on matters, issues
related to environmental concerns & their possible solutions.
1. Eligibility Criteria: Students of class 9th to 12th
2. Important Dates:
Dates for Quiz Competition : From 1st March 2021 to 15th April 2021
3. Link for students to participate in the competition: sankalp.paryavaransanrakshan.org
4. Quiz competition will be held online.
5. Examination will be conducted in Hindi and English language only.
6. Registration fee -Students will submit one Ecobrick in the school.
Polythene, wrappers and pouches can be filled in 1 / 0.5 liter plastic bottle to make
Ecobrick. Please watch the video on making the Ecobrick uploaded at the following
video link: https://bit.ly/ecobrickfunvideo
7. Rewards
All participating students will be given an E-certificate by the PSG.
All rights of competition are reserved with the Paryavaran Sanrakshan Gatividhi.PART - 1 Basics of Environmental Science
1. What consists of an assemblage of populations in an ecosystem? a. Habitat b. Community c. The Earth d. The Ocean 2. Ascending trophic level in grazing food chain pyramid represents a. Gradual decrease in biomass from Apex to base b. Gradual decrease in biomass from producers to the tertiary consumers c. Gradual increase of the biomass from producers to the tertiary consumers d. No change in Biomass 3. Spheres of environment are closely interlinked by________. a. Ecosystems b Hydrological cycle c. Biosphere d. Biogeochemical cycles 4. Which of the food chain directly depends on solar radiations? a. Predator b. Grazing c. Detritus d. None of these 5. __________ is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem. a. Decomposers b. Predator c. Bio-remediator d. Bioindicator
6. Trichoderma harzianum is a ________ that is predominantly used as a fungicide. a. Virus b. Fungus c. Bacteria d. Protozoa 7. Lichens are good bioindicators for ___________. a. Environmental radiation b. Soil pollution c. Water and air pollution d. None of the above 8. _____________ is an extraordinary specialized ecosystem due to its proximity towards sea , in monsoon they are converted to salt marshes. a. Sunderbans b. Great Rann of Kutch c. Andaman and Nicobar islands d. Lakshadeep 9. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because it____ a. Traps heat b. Traps light c. Traps warm currents d. None of the above 10. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is primarily used for ________. a. Estimating the types of microbes b. Determine the level of dissolved oxygen c. Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
d. None of the above 11. Fossil fuels are no longer the preferred sources of energy. The Sun provide s energy in many ways, directly and indirectly which can be harnessed. Which of these is a form of energy that is not solar in origin? a. Tidal b. Wind c. Deep Geothermal d. Hydroelectric 12. Biodiversity refers to the number and variety of organisms found within a p articular habitat. Which of the following is one of the measure of biodiversity? a. Ecosystem diversity b. Species diversity c. Genetic diversity d. All of these 13. What are saprophytes? a. Living beings that feed on the sap from tree bark b.. Living beings that feed on dead or decayed organic matter c.. Living beings that feed on other living beings. d.. Living beings that feed on dead or decayed inorganic matter 14. The process of accumulation of harmful chemical substances like pesticides, in the body of living organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is known as: a. Biological magnification b. Biological accumulation
c. Chemical magnification d. Chemical accumulation 15. Name the atmospheric layer closest to the ground a. Troposphere b. Mesosphere c. Thermosphere d. Stratosphere 16. The most abundant gas on the earth’s atmosphere is a. Oxygen b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen 17.____________ plays a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecosystem. a. Herbivores b. Keystone species c. Carnivores d. None of the above
18. Species that have a high likelihood of going extinct in the near future are called as____________ . a. Rare b. Vulnerable c. Threatened d. Endangered 19. What are arboreal animals? a. Animals living in trees b. Animals living in water c. Animals living in marshy lands 20. What are planktons? a. Plants living in water b. Very small plants and animals living in water c. Very small animals living on land 21. The production of light by living beings is known as __________. a. Bio-luminescence b. Bio-lighting c. Bio-fluorescence 22. Biological equilibrium is an equilibrium among the _________. a. Producers b. Producers and consumers
c. Decomposers d. Producers consumers and decomposers 23. __________ is the only ape found in India. a. Lion tailed macaque. b. Nilgiri langur c. Hoolock Gibbon d. Arunachal Macaque 24. A balanced ecosystem is one in which the ____________. 1. number of organisms at all levels is equal. 2. amount of biomass at all trophic levels is equal. 3. organisms are interdependent on each other. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) none 25. Which of the following is a part of the biogeochemical cycle? 1. Soils 2. Plants 3. Atmosphere 4. Oceans Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 ,3 and 4 only c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4 26. With reference to forest ecosystems, consider the following statements : 1. The number pyramid is never inverted. 2. The biomass pyramid is inverted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 27. In an aquatic ecosystem, the trophic level equivalent to cows in grasslands is _________. a. Phytolankton b. Zooplankton c. Benthic organisms d. Big fishes 28. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (a) Saltwater crocodile (b) Olive ridley turtle (c) Gangetic dolphin (d) Gharial 29. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of a. Insects and fungi
b. Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
c. Water limits and fire
d. None of the above
30. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries .
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
The correct answer is:
a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are false.
31. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity.
a. Deciduous Forest
b. Thorn forest
c. Tropical Rain Forest
d. Coniferous Forest
32. What is a transitional zone between an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial one called?
a Estuary
b. Wetland
c. Biome
d. Delta
33. Do you know the only floating park in the world, located in North East India?a.Keibul Lamjao National Park of Loktak Lake
b. Kanchendzonga National Park
c. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
d. Manas National Park
34. Study the following list:
A. Population - Group of similar individuals belonging to the same species found in an area
B. Community - Assemblage of all the individuals belonging to different species occurring in an
area.
C. Ecosystem - Interaction between the living organisms and their physical environmental
components.
D. Ecosphere - Part of the earth consisting of all the ecosystems of the world.
Which of these is incorrect statement?
a. A
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. None of the abovePART -2 Environment Degradation and Management
1. What is greenhouse effect?
a. It is a phenomenon that traps long wavelength radiation that leads to more heating and a
higher resultant temperature.
b. It is a phenomenon of releasing heat wave to the environment.
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
2. Which of the following is the best example of Greenhouse effect?
a. Sunlight warms your car
b. Weather change
c. Sea Breeze
d. Cloud Bursting
3. What are the main constituent of acid rains?
a. Nitrogen Oxide
b. Sulphur Dioxide
c. Nitrogen Dioxide
d. All of the above
4. Consider the following statement (s) related to the impact of Acid of precipitation
I. The ecological effects of acid rain are most clearly seen in aquatic environments, such as
streams, lakes, and marshes where it can be harmful to fish and other wildlife.
II. At high elevations, acidic fog and clouds might strip nutrients from trees’ foliage, leaving
them with brown or dead leaves.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I & II
d. Neither I nor II
5. The study of weather is called?a. Meteorology b. Climatology c. Aeronomy d. Aerology 6. Consider the following statement (s) about the adverse consequences of ozone depletion. I. The ultraviolet rays damage DNA II. It damages the melanoma (one type skin cancer). Code: a. Only I b. Only II c. Both I & II d. Neither I nor II 7. What is salinization? a. It is a process of accumulation of soluble minerals in upper soil horizons. b. It is a process of accumulation of soluble base in upper soil horizons. c. It is a process of accumulation of soluble acid in upper soil horizons. d. It is a process of accumulation of soluble salts in upper soil horizons. 8. Which of the following is/are related to the Gully erosion? a. Chambal ravines b. Catchment area of Chambal River c. Thar Desert d. Both A & B 9. Which of the following is/are the main factor(s) responsible for the rapid rate deforestation? a. Rapid growth of population in the developing countries b. Extension of agriculture and grazing lands c. Rising demand for lumber, timber, paper, fuel-wood and charcoal, and other forest products.
d. All of the above 10. Which of the following is not related with the sources of Air pollution? a. Volcanic Emissions b. Acid Rains c. Fuel combustion in vehicular traffic d. Petroleum Refining 11. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases? a. Methane and ozone b. Oxygen and nitrous oxide c. Nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide d. Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide 12. Which is the most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes? a. Air pollution b. Contamination of groundwater c. Increased use of land for landfills d. Destruction of habitat 13. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by _________ a. Nitrous oxide b. Carbon dioxide c. Chlorofluorocarbons d. Methane 14. The presence of _________ in a water body is an indicator of water pollution. a. Zygosporangium b. E. coli c. Deinococcus radiodurans d. None of the above
15. Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of ________ . a. Soil Pollution b. Noise Pollution c. Thermal Pollution d. Radiation pollution 16. Minamata disaster caused by release of _______. a. Cadmium b. Methyl mercury c. Nitrates d. Arsenic 17. During this nuclear disaster which occurred in 1986, 400 times more radioactive material than by the atomic bombing of Hiroshima was released. Where did this environmental disaster occur? a. Fukushima, Japan b. Chernobyl, Ukraine c. Tokaimura, Japan d. Three Mile Island, USA 18. The highest per capita emitter of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels and cement manufacture, in the world is ____________ . a. China b. India c. Qatar d. None of these 19. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like ____________. a. Glycerol b. Polyphosphates
c. Sulphonated hydrocarbons d. All of these 20. The non-point pollution of river water involves discharge of pollutants through ______ . a. Urban sewage drains b. Industrial effluents c. Agricultural fields d. Both (a) and (b) 21. Man causes soil erosion through ________ . 1. Use of improper ploughing methods. 2. Leaving roots of crop in the field after harvest. 3. Shifting cultivation. 4. Use of heavy machines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 1, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 22. Biofuels are fuels extracted from plants and crops and these have various advantages. These include 1. Increasing agricultural diversity. 2. Reduced use of fertilizers. 3. Renewable source of energy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
23. The sources of mercury pollution include 1. Coal fired thermal power plants. 2. Supersonic jets. 3. Automobiles. 4. Waste incinerators Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 3 and 4 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 and 4 only 24. The Great Indian Bustard is a critically endangered species. Its population has been declining due to 1. Habitat loss 2. Frequent poaching 3. Construction of windmills Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3 25. Fertilizers are added to supply mainly three nutrients – Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P) and Potassium (K). Bio fertilizers can supply which of these nutrients? 1. Nitrogen 2. Phosphorous 3. Potassium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 26. The brown haze dome formed in cities is because of which gas? a. Sulphur dioxide. b. Nitrogen oxide. c. Carbon dioxide. d. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs). 27. Vultures used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to ________. a. The destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species b. A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle c. Scarcity of food available to them d. A widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them 28. Food web is constituted by a. Various interlinked food chains in a community b. Relationship between animals and plants c. Relationship between organisms and their environment d. Relationship between animals, plants and microbes 29. With reference to Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD), consider the following statements: 1. BOD is a measurement of consumed oxygen by aquatic microorganisms to decompose organic matter. 2. COD refers to the requirement of dissolved oxygen for the oxidation of organic constituents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
30. Surface mining can harm the environment when a. Trees are cut down to clear the land. b. Dust from surface-mined land causes air pollution. c. Rainwater washes pollutants into nearby streams. d. All of the above 31. What are the two most abundant greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere? a. Water vapour and carbon dioxide b. Air and carbon dioxide c. Methane and water vapour d. Nitrogen and air 32. Everything you throw away has to go somewhere. Most garbage ends up in a municipal landfill. Common types of trash are listed below. How long does it really take for your trash to decompose? Will it be a week, month, year, 100 years, longer? The answers may surprise you! Wool socks - 1 year / 50 yeras Leather belt - 40-50 years / 2 months Banana peel - 3-4weeks /3-4 years Paper bag - 1-2 months / 10 days Plastic jug - 100 – 500 years/ 2 years Glass bottle - 1000 years/ 50 years Aluminum can -100 years / 10 years 33. PET, the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family, is the most widely 'recycled' plastic. What does PET stand for? a. Poly-ethylene-tetrahedralphenol b. Poly-ethylene-terephthalate c. Poly-ethanol-terrycot d. Para-ethyl-tetrahydroxybutane
PART - 3 Conservation and Management of Environment
1. When solid waste contains large number of____________ it can be used as fuel. a. Recyclables b. Combustibles c. Compostibles d. All of above 2. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is ____________ a. Regulation of hazardous wastes b. Regulate the production of nuclear energy c. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases d. None of the above 3. The World Wildlife Fund (WWF) is one of the largest conservation organizations in the world. It seeks to conserve biodiversity and build a future where humans live in harmony with the environment. Which of the following animals is the symbol of WWF? a. Dodo b. Giant Panda c. Bison d. Bengal tiger 4. In June 2014, _______ program started for abatement of pollution and rejuvenation of national river Ganga. a. River valley b. Clean River c. Namami Gange d. River linking 5. _______ is an engineered facility for disposal of solid waste. a. Landfill b. Composting plant c. Transfer station
d. None of above 6. India's first national park, the Hailey National Park, was established in 1936. It is situated at the foothills of the Himalayas and is famous for its tiger population. By what name do we know the Park today? a. Sariska National Park b. Bandhavgarh National Park c. Jim Corbett National park d. Kaziranga National Park 7. The Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the ozone layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. The Montreal Protocol was assigned in___________. a. 1977 b. 1987 c. 1992 d. 1982 8. An environmental audit helps in achieving the objective of _________ . a. Waste minimization b. Resource optimization c. Public awareness of the unit's environmental records d. All of the above 9. World Wetlands Day is observed on _______. a. February 2 b. February 28 c. February 22 d. February 12
10. The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands. What does Ramsar stand for? a. An environmentalist b. A city c. An endangered animal d. A Greek God 11. What does UNEP stand for? a. United Nations Educational Plan b. United Nations Environmental Protection c. United Nations Environmental Programme d. United Nations Environmental Policy 12. The headquarters of UNEP is at ___________. a. New York b. Geneva c. Sockholm d. Nairobi 13. Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched by the Government of India ensuring a viable population of tigers in their natural habitats and also to protect them from extinction. Which year it was launched? a. 1973 b. 1975 c. 1978 d. 1970 14. Name India’s first national park a. Manas National Park b. Gir Forest National Park c. Bandhavgarh National Park
d. Hailey National Park 15. Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? 1. National Parks 2. Wildlife Sanctuaries 3. Biosphere Reserves Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only 16. Which of the following state in India to make roof to rain water harvesting compulsory in India? a. Tamil Nadu b. Assam c. Kerela d. Goa 17. Chipko Andolan took place in _______ a. 1970 b. 1973 c. 1972 d. 1980 18. Kanha National park is located at? A. Uttarakhand B. Uttar Pradesh C. Bihar D. Madhya Pradesh
19. Which among the following are mechanical method of soil conservation on hill slopes? 1. Bunding 2. Terracing 3. Contour farming 4. Stubble mulching Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 ,3 and 4 only c. 2 ,3 and 4 only d. 1 ,2, and 4 only 20. Identify the correctly matched pair a. Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation b. Montreal Protocol - Global warming c. Kyoto protocol – Climatic change d. Ramsar Convention – Ground water pollution 21. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India? a. Engineering b. Paper and pulp c. Textiles d. Thermal power 22.GRIHA stands for a. Green Residential Habitat Assessment b. Green Resource Integrated Habitat Assessment c. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment d. Green Rating for International Habituation Assessment
23. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has laid down standards for the control of pollution of a. Air b. Water c. Noise d. All of the above 24. EIA stands for -_____________. a. Environmental Impact Assessment b. Ecological Impact Assessment c. Environmental Impact Audit d. Environmental Impact Area 25. IUCN stands for _________. a. International Union for Conservation of Nature. b. Indian Union for climate and Nature c. International Union for Climate and Nature d. None of the above 26. With to the IUCN classification, extinct species are those which have been: 1. Completely eliminated from wild areas. 2. Completely eliminated from managed areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 27. In ________ the biological diversity act was enacted in India to conserve biodiversity, manage its sustainable use. a. 1986
b. 1981. c. 2002 d. 1974. 28._________ shows the extent of water use in relation to consumption by people. a. Water audit b. Water footprint c. Water harvesting d. Water balance 29. Hierarchy of integrated solid waste management is_______. a. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover b. Refuse, Rethink, Refurbish c. Recover, Reuse, Recycle d. Recycle and Reuse 30. _____________ is India’s first government authorized electronic waste recycler started in 2005.It is engaged in handling, reusing and recycling of Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment (WEEE) in ecofriendly way. a. E- Parisara b. SWaCH c. Green Recycling d. Eco vision 31. World Environment Day is celebrated on________ a. 5th June b. 22nd April c. 22nd January d. 22nd March
32. Which is an advantage of using methane produced in landfills to generate energy? a. It prevents methane from entering the atmosphere and reduces effect of global warming. b. It prevents most forms of air pollution. c. It reduces the need for additional landfills. d. All of the above 33. Which of the following materials can be recovered from the recycling of soft drink cans? a. Paper b. Plastic c. Metal d. Glass 34. Which among the following are mechanical method of soil conservation on hill slopes? 1. Bunding 2. Terracing 3. Contour farming 4. Stubble mulching Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 ,3 and 4 only c. 2 ,3 and 4 only d. 1 ,2, and 4 only 35. The advantage of implementing rainwater harvesting is _____________. a. It recharges ground water levels b. It reduces run-off c. It avoids flooding d. All of the above
36. In 1972, this legislation established schedules for protecting plant and animal species in India. Hunting or harvesting of these species was largely outlawed. Identify it. a. The Forest Conservation Act b. The Wildlife Protection Act c. The Environment Protection Act d. The Kyoto Protocol 37. The Environment (Protection) Act of India was enacted by Parliament of India under Article 253 of the Indian constitution. In which year was this act enacted? a. 1976 b. 1980 c. 1986 d. 1990
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