March 2021 - PRE-Mix - Sleepy Classes
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PRE-Mix
(Compilations of the Multiple Choice Questions)
For the 3rd Week
Of
March
2021
(1 5 th March to 2 0th March)
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Table of Contents
1. Geography ...........................................................................................................1
2. History ..................................................................................................................6
3. Polity & Governance .......................................................................................11
4. Economy ..............................................................................................................15
5. Environment.......................................................................................................19
6. Science & Technology .....................................................................................24
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1. Geography
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1. Which of the following are true for Western Disturbance ?
1. It is an tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region.
2. It leads to non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
3. It is responsible brings sudden winter rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation
•A western disturbance is an extra
tropical storm originating in the
Mediterranean region that brings sudden
winter rain to the northwestern parts of
the Indian subcontinent.
• It is a non-monsoonal precipitation
pattern driven by the westerlies.
• The moisture in these storms usually
originates over the Mediterranean Sea,
the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea
• Western disturbances are important for the development of the Rabi crop which includes the locally
important staple wheat.
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2. What are the factors which may affect “Surface Ocean Salinity” ?
1. Evaporation
2. Precipitation
3. Fresh water ow
4. Wind
5. Ocean Currents
A. 1, 2 3 and 5
B. 1, 2 , 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
Remember
• The low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to in ux of river water by the river Ganga.
• On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and low in ux of fresh
water.
3. Strait of Gallipoli connects:
A. Sea of Marmara and Aegean Sea
B. Aegean Sea and Ionian Sea
C. Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
D. Caspian Sea and Black Sea
Answer: A
Explanation
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4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. Majority of agricultural land in India is under some form of irrigation than being rain fed.
2. The mean productivity of both irrigated and rain-fed lands is almost the same.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
• Irrigated area accounts for nearly 48.8 per cent of the 140 million hectare of agricultural land in India.
The remaining 51.2 per cent is rainfed.
• The mean productivity of rainfed area (71.62 mha) is about 1.1 tonne per ha compared to 2.8 tonne
per hectare of irrigated area.
5. Which of the following is / are the characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low Sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct as Indian coal has high ash content.
• Statement 2 is correct as content of Sulphur is low in Indian coal.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as Indian coal has high low ash fusion temperature.
• Indian coals like any other gondwana coals are of high ash content which due to the nature of
formation of the coal deposits.
• In general Indian Coals are of drift origin, i.e. the original plant materials, which were later
transformed into coal, were transported by rivers and laid down as uviatile, lacustrine or deltaic
deposits. As a result the plant material were contaminated with clay and other detritus minerals,
giving rise to high ash content
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2. History
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1. Which of the following statements are correct about Sahitya Akademi Award?
1. Established in 1944, It is a cultural honour that is conferred biannually by Sahitya Akademi,
India’s National Academy of letters.
2. Indian lm-maker Satyajit Ray is the designer of the plaque awarded by the Sahitya Akademi.
Choose the correct answer from above
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
• News - The National Academy of Letters have announced the names for the “Sahitya Akademi Award
2020 on March 12, 2021.
About
• Sahitya Akademi award established in 1954, is a literary honour that is conferred annually by Sahitya
Akademi, India’s National Academy of letters.
• Award is presented to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the twenty-
four major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi (including English).
• Sahitya Akademi award is the second highest literary honour by the Government of India, after
Jananpith award.
• The award is presented in the form of a casket containing an engraved copper- plaque, a shawl and a
cheque of Rs 1 lakh.
• Indian lm-maker Satyajit Ray is the designer
of the plaque awarded by the Sahitya
Akademi.
Criteria
• The author must be of Indian Nationality.
• Book/work eligible for award must be an
outstanding contribution to the language and
literature to which it belongs.
• When equal merit for books of two or more are found, certain criterialike total literary contribution
and standing of authors shall be taken into consideration for declaring award.
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2. Based on following statements identify the monument .
1. Built in the 13th century, conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with 12 pairs of
exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
2. Built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty.
3. It was included in UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and also
for the sophistication and abundance of sculptural work.
Choose the correct Option
A. Jagannath Puri
B. Lingaraj Temple
C. Konark Temple
D. Lalitgiri
Answer: C
Explanation
• Built in the 13th century, the Konark temple was
conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God,
with 12 pairs of exquisitely ornamented wheels
pulled by seven horses.
• It was built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great
ruler of Ganga dynasty.
• The temple was included in UNESCO World
Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural
greatness and also for the sophistication and
abundance of sculptural work.
• The temple is a perfect blend of Kalinga
architecture, heritage, exotic beach and salient
natural beauty.
• It is protected under the National Framework of
India by the Ancient Monuments and
Archaeological Sites and Remains
• (AMASR) Act (1958) and its Rules (1959).
• The Konark is the third link of Odisha’s Golden Triangle. The rst link is Jagannath Puri and the
second link is Bhubaneswar (Capital city of Odisha).
• This temple was also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due to its dark colour and used as a navigational
landmark by ancient sailors to Odisha.
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3. Which of the following statements are correct about the World Heritage Sites ?
1. To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classi ed landmark, unique in some
respect as a geographically and historically identi able place having special cultural or physical
signi cance.
2. All world heritage sites in India are regulated and maintained by Ministry of Culture.
Choose the correct statements
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation
About
• A World Heritage site is classi
ed as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of international
importance, and a space which requires special protection.
• These sites are of cially recognised by the UN and the United Nations Educational Scienti c and
Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO.
• UNESCO believes that the sites classi ed as World Heritage are important for humanity, and they
hold cultural and physical signi cance
• The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO
World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the
General Assembly.
• Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located
and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the
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• To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an
already classi ed landmark, unique in some
respect as a geographically and historically
identi able place having special cultural or
physical signi cance.
• CULTURAL SITES - Under Protection of
Archaeological Survey of India (22).
• NATURAL SITES: (7) - Under Protection of
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Changes and respectively other departments.
4. Which one of the following was the very special port in the Kaktiya dynasty ?
A. Kakinada
B. Motupalli
C. Masulipatnam
D. Nelluru
Answer: B
Explanation
• Bronze idols of Lord Nataraja, his consort Parvati, their son Ganesha and Alwars, the Bhakti
movement saints dating back to the 12th century, were found in the 1970s, has remained hitherto
untapped.
• It is interesting to note that coins and
pottery from the 9th century Chinese
Ming dynasty were also found during
the excavations conducted in 1972.
• Italian traveller Marco Polo who had
visited the port in 1287 AD, had given a
vivid account on the ourishing trade
activities at the port during the reign of
Kakatiya queen Rudrama Devi.
• Motupalli Veerabhadraswamy temple
✓Veerabhadra Swamy temple was
constructed during the regime of the
Cholas,It has stone inscriptions in
Telugu and Tamil and awe- inspiring
Panchaloha idols.
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✓It is said that this Temple ourished during the times of Kakatiya rulers who established sea trade
with foreign countries.
5. Sanskrit prosody or Chandas is related to which of the following ?
A. Tantric Rituals
B. Architecture
C. Vedic studies
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation
About
• Sanskrit prosody or Chandas refers to one of the six Vedangas, or limbs of Vedic studies.
• It is the study of poetic metres and verse in Sanskrit.
• This eld of study was central to the composition of the Vedas, the scriptural canons of Hinduism, so
central that some later Hindu and Buddhist texts refer to the Vedas as Chandas.
• The Chandas, as developed by the Vedic schools, were organized around seven major metres, and
each had its own rhythm, movements and aesthetics.
• Sanskrit metres include those based on a xed number of syllables per verse, and those based on xed
number of morae per verse.
• Extant ancient manuals on Chandas include Pingala's Chandah Sutra, while an example of a medieval
Sanskrit prosody manual is Kedara Bhatta's Vrittaratnakara.
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3. Polity & Governance
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1. Which of the following statements are correct about Inner Line Permit?
1. ILP was introduced by the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act 1873 to regulate in ow of
outsiders to preserve the indigenous culture of tribes.
2. The areas falling under ILP are decided by respective state governments who then issue travel
documents to outsiders to enter these protected areas.
A. 1 Only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
• The system of Inner Line Permit was rst introduced by the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act,
1873, the British framed regulations restricting the entry and regulating the stay of outsiders in
designated areas. This was to protect the Crown’s own commercial interests by preventing “British
subjects” (Indians) from trading within these regions.
• In 1950, the Indian government replaced “British subjects” with “Citizen of India”. This was to address
local concerns about protecting the interests of the indigenous people from outsiders belonging to
other Indian states.
• The decision regarded areas under ILP is decided by central government. However, ILP letter to allow
outsiders to travel in these areas temporarily is issued by the respective state govts.
2. Which of the following is correct about the Data Governance Quality Index?
1. It assesses performance of different states of India on the implementation of Central Sector
Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
2. It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Of ce (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
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• DGQI survey assesses different Ministries /Departments' performance on the implementation of
Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
• It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Of ce (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
• Its objective is to assess data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework
to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
• It will immensely help improve the implementation framework of government policies, schemes and
programmes to achieve the desired goals.
3. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights (NCPCR)?
1. The NCPCR is a statutory body which works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
2. The Commission de nes a child upto the age of 16 years and adolescent from 16 to 18 years of
age.
3. It tries to ensure that all laws are in consonance with Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the
Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the Above
Answer: C
Explanation
• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian statutory body
established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
The Commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development, GoI. The
Commission began operational on 5th March, 2007.
• The Commission is mandated under section 13 of CPCR Act, 2005 "to ensure that all Laws, Policies,
Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as
enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.” As de ned
by the commission, child includes person up to the age of 18 years.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Any persons employed with the central or state governments can’t be appointed as election
commissioners
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general
elections and bye-elections.
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3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/ mergers of recognized political
parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation
• Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• In a 2021 judgment the Supreme Court ruled ruled that any persons employed with the central or
state governments could not be appointed as election commissioners “across the length and breadth
of the country”.
• The ruling aims at ensuring independence of the election commissions. Election Commission of India
is a 3 member body and decides the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections.
• It is also the function of election commission to resolve the disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognized political parties.
5. In India, Judicial Review implies:
A. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
B. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
C. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by
the President.
D. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer: A
Explanation
• Judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and
executive orders of both the Central and state governments.
• On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra- vires), they can be
declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void). Consequently, they cannot be enforced
by the government.
• The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high
court or supreme court on the following three grounds:
✓ it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
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✓ it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
✓ it is repugant to the constitutional provisions
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4. Economy
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1. In context of Flexible In ation Targeting Framework, which of the following is/are correct:
1. India has a exible in ation targeting framework which came into after the 2016 amendment to
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934.
2. The amended RBI Act provides for the in ation target to be set by the Government of India, in
consultation with the Reserve Bank, once every ve years.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both are correct
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation
• Flexible In ation Targeting Framework:
• Now there is a exible in ation targeting framework in India (after the 2016 amendment to the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934).
• The amended RBI Act provides for the in ation target to be set by the Government of India, in
consultation with the Reserve Bank, once every ve years.
• The Central Government has noti ed 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) in ation as the target for
the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and
the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.
• The Reserve Bank of India, in the Report on Currency and Finance for FY21, has said the current
in ation target of 4% with a +/-2% tolerance band is appropriate for the next ve years.
2. Which of the following is/are correct about Vivad Se Vishwas scheme:
1. It is an indirect tax dispute resolution scheme.
2. It was enacted primarily with the objective to reduce pending GST litigations that arose after
various indirect taxes were subsumed in the GST.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both are correct
D. None is correct
Answer: D
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Explanation
• The Income Tax Department extended the deadline for ling declarations and making payment under
the direct tax dispute resolution scheme ‘Vivad Se Vishwas’ (VsV) till March 31 and April 30.
• The Direct Tax ‘Vivad se Vishwas’ Act, 2020 was enacted on March 17, 2020, with the objective to
reduce pending income tax litigation, generate timely revenue for the government and to bene t
taxpayers.
• The scheme aims to end litigation and legacy disputes under the direct taxes category as ₹9.32 lakh
crore worth of revenue is blocked in approximately 4.8 lakh appeals pending at various income tax
appellate forums.
• The entities who opt for the scheme have to pay a requisite tax following which all litigation against
them are closed by the tax department and penal proceedings dropped.
• The response to the scheme gains signi cance given earlier schemes like Kar Vivad Samadhan
Scheme, 1998 (KVSS) and Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016 (DTDRS) did not yield much
results.
• The scheme has reportedly received an overwhelming response with a settlement amount of over Rs
97,000 crore as of February.
• So far, over 1,25,144 of the 5,10,491 long-pending cases have been settled under the scheme.
• These comprise 24.5 per cent of the total number of such cases which were pending before the
scheme was introduced.
3. Which of the following is/are correct in context of Asia Economic Dialogue?
1. Asia Economic Dialogue (AED) is the agship geo-economics conference of the Indian Ministry of
Finance and RBI.
2. The dialogue focuses on trade and nance dynamics in Asia and its extended neighbourhood.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both are correct
D. None is correct
Answer: B
Explanation
• The 5th edition of the Asia Economic Dialogue (AED) was held virtually.
• About Asia Economic Dialogue (AED)
• Asia Economic Dialogue (AED) is the agship geo- economics conference of the Indian Ministry of
External Affairs (MEA).
• The dialogue focuses on trade and nance dynamics in Asia and its extended neighbourhood.
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• It is jointly organized by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and Pune International Centre (PIC).
• Theme: “Post Covid-19 Global Trade and Finance Dynamics”.
• The dialogue focuses on the pandemic’s impact on trade and nance, on the world, and on Asia in
particular.
• It also discusses strategies to deal with this impact.
4. Which of the following statements regarding Bad Bank is/are correct?
1. A bad bank is a bank set up to buy the bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another nancial
institution.
2. The entity holding signi cant nonperforming assets will sell these holdings to the bad bank at
market price.
3. By transferring such assets to the bad bank, the original institution may clear its balance sheet
without taking write-downs.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 ,2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation
• A bad bank is a bank set up to buy the bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another nancial
institution.
• The entity holding signi cant nonperforming assets will sell these holdings to the bad bank at market
price.
• By transferring such assets to the bad bank, the original institution may clear its balance sheet—
although it will still be forced to take write-downs.
• Indian banks’ pile of bad loans is a huge drag on the economy.
• It’s a drain on banks’ pro ts. Because pro ts are eroded, public sector banks (PSBs), where the bulk of
the bad loans reside, cannot raise enough capital to fund credit growth.
• Lack of credit growth, in turn, comes in the way of the economy’s return to an 8% growth trajectory.
Therefore, the bad loan problem requires effective resolution.
• The Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) has begun identifying bad loans which can be transferred to the
Centre’s proposed bad bank.
• The IBA has written to banks asking them for a list of all bad loans worth Rs 500 crore and above to
“identify magnitude of the problem” and “get clarity over initial capital required for the entity”.
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• Finance Minister had proposed setting up of a bad bank during her Union Budget 2021 speech on
February 1.
• She said the proposed entity would take over stressed loans from banks to sell to alternative
investment funds (AIF).
5. Which of the following statements are correct about Fugitive economic offender?
1. A person can be named an offender under the law if there is an arrest warrant against him or her
for involvement in economic offences involving at least Rs. 1000 crore or more and has ed from
India to escape legal action.
2. The investigating agencies have to le an application in a Special Court under the Prevention of
Money-Laundering Act containing details of the properties to be con scated, and any
information about the person’s whereabouts.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
Fugitive economic offender
• A person can be named an offender under the law if there is an arrest warrant against him or her for
involvement in economic offences involving at least Rs. 100 crore or more and has ed from India to
escape legal action.
• The investigating agencies have tole an application in a Special Court under the Prevention of
Money-Laundering Act containing details of the properties to be con scated, and any information
about the person’s whereabouts.
• The Special Court will issue a notice for the person to appear at a speci ed place and date at least six
weeks from the issue of notice.
• Proceedings will be terminated if the person appears.
• If not the person would be declared as a Fugitive Economic Offender based on the evidence led by
the investigating agencies.
• The person who is declared as a Fugitive Economic Offender can challenge the proclamation in the
High Court within 30 days of such declaration according to the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act,
2018.
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5. Environment
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1. Based on the following statements identify the river?
1. It ows through the city of Jammu.
2. It is a major left bank tributary of the river Chenab.
3. It originates from the lap of Kailash Kund glacier and adjoining area southwest of Bhadarwah in
Doda district.
4. It is a belief of the Hindus of Jammu city that the river was brought to Jammu by 'Raja Pehar
Devta' to cure his father and was given the throne of Jammu City and was declared as 'Raja', i.e.
King of Jammu with the blessings of 'Bawe wali Shri Mata Kali Ji'.
A. Marudasar
B. Tawi
C. Bhaga
D. Chandra
Answer: B
Explanation
• The Friends of River Tawi (FORT) Movement, organized a mega clean-Up drive, by the name of “Tawi
Cleanathon” as a part of their 5th week celebrations.
• After traversing Jammu city, the river crosses into Pakistan's Punjab and joins Chenab river.
• Tawi is a major left bank tributary of river Chenab.
• Tawi river transverses through and divides Jammu city in two parts -
✓The old Jammu town is located on the hill overlooking river Tawi.
✓The new town is across the river.
• Tawi river is a major source of drinking water for the old city.
• Untreated sewage in Jammu pollutes Tawi river as it passes through the city.
• Jammu and Kashmir government is in the process of constructing an arti cial lake on River Tawi at
Bhagwati Nagar in Jammu for promotion of tourism and providing water supply to dry areas of the
city.
• A team of Pakistani ofcials visited the site and studied the details of the project which will help allay
any apprehensions about violation of provisions of Indus Water Treaty .
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2. Which of the following statements are correct about Simlipal Protected Reserve?
1. Simlipal derives its name from ‘Simul’ (silk cotton) tree.
2. It is a part of the Eastern ghats.
3. This protected area is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves
4. It includes three protected areas — Simlipal Tiger Reserve, Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary and
Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary.
A. 1, 3, and 4 oly
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, and 4 only
D. 1 , 2 3 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation
• Similipal, which derives its name from ‘Simul’ (silk cotton) tree, is a national park and a tiger reserve
situated in the northern part of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district.
• Similipal and the adjoining areas, comprising 5,569 sq km, was declared a biosphere reserve by the
Government of India on June 22, 1994, and lies in the eastern end of the eastern ghat.
• It was declared a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in June, 1994 and has been part of
the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserve since 2009.
Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
• It includes three protected areas — Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary with 191.06
km2 (73.77 sq mi) and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary.
• It is the abode of 94 species of orchids and about 3,000 species of plants.
• The identi ed species of fauna include 12 species of amphibians, 29 species of reptiles, 264 species of
birds and 42 species of mammals, all of which collectively highlight the biodiversity richness of
Similipal.
• Sal is a dominant tree species.
• Similipal and the adjoining areas, comprising 5,569 sq km, was declared a biosphere reserve by the
Government of India on June 22, 1994, and lies in the eastern end of the eastern ghat.
• This protected area is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009.
• Eucalyptus trees planted recently in Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) and other forests in Odisha may be
among the reasons the reserve continues to be on re 15 days after the rst reported incident,
according to experts.
✓Eucalyptus trees, which are prone to re, were planted in large tracts of the forest by clearing
medicinal plants and other native trees
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✓The leaves of these contain a highly in ammatory oil that ignites easily. The trees catch re as the
ground beneath the trees is usually littered with leaves.
✓It is illegal for the forest department to plant eucalyptus trees instead of native ones such as sal,
mahuli, asan, karang, arjun, jack-fruits and other trees for which the forest re is spreading.
✓The state forest department started planting eucalyptus trees in Joshipur and Kaling forest areas
of Similipal for the rst time in 1977.
3. The term Arribada is associated with which of the following ?
A. Hatching
B. Fungi
C. Photosynthesis
D. Kraits
Answer: A
Explanation
• Olive Ridley female turtles have started moving to the Gahirmatha beach in the Kendrapara district in
Odisha.
• They are arriving at the beach to lay eggs which is described as the phenomenon called ‘arribada’.
• Arribada is a Spanish term which describes the unique natural heritage of these marine species which
converge on the nesting ground to lay eggs.
• The annual mass nesting of the marine species started on March 10, 2021 in Nasi-2 beach of
Gahirmatha nesting ground.
• Around 2,000 turtles had turned up to lay eggs on ground. The mass nesting process will continue for
at least 10 days.
• Usually,
around 7.30 lakh Olive Ridley turtles were gathered for the mass nesting in the year
2019-2020.
Gahirmatha Beach
• It is a beach located in the state of Odisha.
• It separates the Bhitarkanika Mangroves from Bay of Bengal.
• This beach is the most important nesting beach for olive ridley sea turtles in the world.
• It is a part of the Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary. It is the only marine wildlife sanctuary in
Odisha.
Olive Ridley Sea Turtle
• The scienti c name of the turtle is Lepidochelys olivacea.
• It is also known as the Paci c Ridley sea turtle.
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• It is the second-smallest known species across the world.
• The species is also the most abundant of all the sea turtles across the world.
• It is found in the warm and tropical waters especially in the Paci c and Indian Oceans. It is also found
in the warm waters of Atlantic Ocean.
• Olive Ridley turtle and the Kemp’s ridley turtle are known for their unique mass nesting sites which
are called as arribadas.
Kemp’s Ridley sea turtle
• It is also called Atlantic Ridley sea turtle.
• The turtle is the rarest species of sea turtle and also the most endangered species of sea turtles across
the world.
4. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats- Sri Lanka and
Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (UPSC- 2011)
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of ora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
A. 1, 2 and 6
B. 2, 4 and 6
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 3, 4 and 6
Answer: C
Explanation
• Biodiversity is referred to as the variation of plant and animal species in a particular habitat. Species
evenness and species richness form the major components of biodiversity.
• India is known for its rich biodiversity and has around 24.46% of the geographical area covered by
forests and trees.
• Coined by Norman Myers, the term “Biodiversity hotspots” can be de ned as the regions which are
known for their high species richness and endemism.
• According to Conservation International, a region must ful l the following two criteria to qualify as a
hotspot:
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✓The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants i.e., it should have a high degree of
endemism.
✓It must contain 30% (or less) of its original habitat, i.e. it must be threatened.
• Following the criteria must for an area to be declared as Biodiversity Hotspot, there are major four
biodiversity hotspots in India:
✓The Himalayas
✓Indo-Burma Region
✓The Western Ghats
✓Sundaland
5. Abujmarh, a potential site for Biosphere Reserves as selected by Ministry of Forests and
Environment lies in
A. Maharashtra
B. Jharkhand
C. Chattisgarh
D. UttarPradesh
Answer: C
Explanation
• Abujmarh is a hilly forest area, spread over 4,000
square kilometres (1,500 sq mi) in Chhattisgarh,
covering Narayanpur district, Bijapur district and
Dantewada district.
• It is home to indigenous tribes of India, including
Gond, Muria, Abuj Maria, and Halbaas.
• Itwas only in 2009 that the Government of
Chhattisgarh lifted the restriction on the entry of
common people in the area imposed in the early
1980s.
• Geographically isolated and largely inaccessible,
the area continues to show no physical presence
of the civil administration, and is also known as
"liberated- zone" as it is an alleged hub of
Naxalite-Maoist insurgency, the banned
Communist Party of India (Maoist) and its military
wing, People's Liberation Guerilla Army (PLGA), who run a parallel government in the area
• In 2007 the area was proposed as a biosphere reserve by Ministry of Environment and Forests,
Government of India.
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6. Science & Technology
Click here to watch the following questions on YouTube
1. AsterX recently heard in news is a
A. Military Satellite
B. Space Military Exercise
C. Fighter Aircraft
D. New found layer of Earth
Answer: B
Explanation
• Amid the growing competition among the world powers in the eld of space, France has begun its rst
space military exercises to test its ability to defend its satellites.
• The exercise drills are codenamed “AsterX” to commemorate the rst French satellite Asterix from
1965.
• The exercises are part of France’s strategy to become the world’s third-largest space power, after the
USA and China.
• These space military exercises are the rst ever attempt not only for the French army but also for
Europe.
• Moreover, France has planned to develop anti-satellite laser weapons and to strengthen surveillance
capabilities to close the gap with rivals; China and Russia.
• Aim of the Exercise is to monitor a potentially dangerous space object as well as threats to its own
satellite from another foreign power possessing a considerable space force.
• Along with France, the new US Space Force and German space agencies are taking part in the
exercises.
2. Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Make-II’ category Projects?
1. They comprise of the prototype development of system, equipment, platform or their upgrades.
2. Such projects are ‘Industry Funded’.
3. This category of the project provides for a focus on the impor substitution and innovative
solutions.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: D
Explanation
• Context: The Indian army is all set to procure Made in India “Mobile Integrated Network Terminal
(MINT)” systems providing a huge boost to the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan of the government.
• The MINT system will enhance the operational communication capability of the Indian Army in
accordance with the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.
• MINT systems come under the Make II Category of DAP 2020.
• This system is a portable, lightweight, state of art integrated communication solution comprising of
the satellite backhaul and wireless access system to provide the support voice, video and data.
• The ‘Make-II’ category projects which comprises of the prototype development of system, equipment,
platform or their upgrades.
• Such projects are ‘Industry Funded’.
• The projects could also comprise of the sub-systems or sub- assembly or assemblies or components of
the developing systems.
• This category of the project provides for a focus on the import substitution and innovative solutions.
• For prototype development purposes under this category, no government funding is provided.
• As per the evaluation of response submitted by Indian Industry total of eleven rms were issued the
Project Sanction Order on March, 12 2021.
• These rms will develop the prototype.
• Following this, Contract will be placed with one of the rms after they successfully develop the
prototype in accordance with the provisions of Buy (Indian-IDDM) of DAP 2020.
3. Non-fungible token recently heard in news is used in the context of
A. Crypto Currency
B. Covid-19
C. Digital assets
D. Digital Penalties
Answer: C
Explanation
• Context: An American rock band recently released a music album
• The music album was launched as a non-fungible token (NFT).
• It is a special type of cryptographic token which represents somethings which are unique.
• These tokens are not mutually interchangeable.
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• This is opposite to the cryptocurrencies such as bitcoin.
• It is a type of crypto-asset that represents several numbers of assets such as tickets, artforms, and
music.
• Such type of asset is gaining its popularity because several investors and enthusiasts are interested to
spend a large sum of money on items which only exist digitally.
• These tokens are used to create digital scarcity and digital ownership.
• It can also be used in online gaming, crypto art and digital collectibles.
4. Based on the following statements identify the personality
1. He is remembered as the “India’s Satellite Man”.
2. He also worked as the chairman of IndianS pace Research Organisation.
3. The tech giant Google celebrated the 89th birthday of this renowned Indian professor and
scientist on March 10, 2021 through its “Google Doodle”.
4. He was awarded with the Padma Bhushan by Government of India in the year 1976, and he was
conferred with the Padma Vibhushan in the 2017
5. He was inducted into Satellite Hall of Fame, Washington in March 2013 at the ceremony
organised by the Society of Satellite Professionals International
6. The professor was also inducted in International Astronautics Federation (IAF) in May 2016 and
became the rst Indian again to achieve this honour.
A. Udupi Ramachandra Rao
B. K. Sivan
C. Satish Dhawan
D. Homi J. Bhabha
Answer: A
Explanation
• Udupi Ramachandra Rao was an Indian space scientist.
• He also worked as the chairman of Indian Space Research Organisation.
• The scientist was also the Chairman of Governing Council of Indian Institute for Space Science and
Technology (IIST) at Thiruvananthapuram, Physical Research Laboratory at Ahmedabad and Nehru
Planetarium at Bengaluru.
• He is remembered as the “India’s Satellite Man”.
• He died in the year 2017.
• He was born in a village of Karnataka on March 10, 1932.
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• He started his career as a cosmic-ray physicist and as a protege of Dr Vikram Sarabhai who is
regarded as the father of India’s space program.
• He then worked as a professor and conducted experiments on Pioneer and Explorer space probes of
NASA.
• He returned to India in 1966 and lead the 1975 launch of India’s rst satellite called “Aryabhata”.
• This satellite is one among 20 satellites the professor developed. The satellite transformed the rural
India by providing advanced communication and meteorological services.
• Professor Rao was awarded with the Padma Bhushan by Government of India in the year 1976, and
he was conferred with the Padma Vibhushan in the 2017.
• Professor was inducted into Satellite Hall of Fame, Washington in March 2013 at the ceremony
organised by the Society of Satellite Professionals International.
• Thus, he became the rst Indian to be inducted into Satellite Hall of Fame. The professor was also
inducted in International Astronautics Federation (IAF) in May 2016 and became the rst Indian
again to achieve this honour.
5. DUSTLIK II’ is a joint exercise between India and
A. Russia
B. Kyrgyzstan
C. Uzbekistan
D. Tajakistan
Answer: C
Explanation
• The India–Uzbekistan joint military exercise “DUSTLIK II” was conducted in the Foreign Training
Node Chaubatia at Ranikhet in the state of Uttarakhand.
• It was the second edition of annual bilateral joint exercise of both the armies.
• It concluded on March 19, 2021
• The rst edition of DUSTLIK was held at Uzbekistan in the month of November, 2019.
• In the second edition of the exercise, around 45 soldiers from each of Indian army and Uzbekistan
army participated.
• During the exercise, both the armies shared their expertise and skills with respect to the counter-
terrorism operations under the mandate of United Nations in Mountainous or Urban or Rural
scenarios.
• The exercise also culminated into a 36-hour joint validation exercise which was scheduled for March
17 to March 18, 2021.
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• This exercise was a testbed for soldiers of both the countries because under the exercise, the armies
underwent the challenges of actual operations in such scenarios.
• The joint exercise provided an impetus to the military and diplomatic ties of the two countries.
• It also signi ed the strong resolve of both the countries to counter-terrorism.
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